Linear Algebra Math 310
Spring 2012
Selected (*) Solutions Section 1.7
Even Numbered * Problems from Book
28. How many pivot columns must 5 x 7 matrix have if its
columns span
R5?
SOLUTION: There must be 5 pivot
columns, which
can be justified as follows. Let the matrix in question be A.
The
columns of A span R5 if and only if
there is a pivot
position in each row (Theorem 4, section 1.4). Since there are 5
rows, that
means there must be 5 pivot positions. But each is in a different
column,
so that implies that there are 5 pivot columns.
30. If A is an m × n matrix, then the columns
of A
are linearly independent if and only if A has n pivot columns.
JUSTIFICATION: This is an if and
only if
statement, so the justification requires two parts. First,
suppose that
the columns are linearly independent. That means that the only
way to combine
those columns to make a zero vector is to use a coefficient of 0 on
each
column. But that is the same things as saying that the
homogeneous equation
Ax = 0 has only the trivial solution, and in particular,
has
a unique solution. That in turn means that there are no
free variables
in the general solution of the equation, and hence no non-pivot columns
in
the RREF of A. So, every column of A is a pivot
column, and
there are n of them. This shows that if the columns are
independent,
then there are n pivot columns, and completes the first part of
the
justification.
For the second part, suppose that there are n
pivot columns. Then every column is a pivot column, and there are
no non-pivot
columns. So, the equation Ax
= 0 has no free variables. Because this is a homogeneous
equation, it is
automatically consistent, and x = 0 will be one solution.
Now the
absence of free variables tells us that this solution must be unique:
the
equation Ax = 0 has only
the trivial
solution. By statement (3) page 66, we can conclude that the
columns of
A are linearly independent. This shows that if there are n
pivot columns, then the columns of A are linearly independent,
and
completes the second part of the justification.
40. [Not included in revised
assignment.] Suppose an m × n matrix A has n
pivot columns.
Show that, for any b in Rm, the
equation Ax
= b has at most one solution.
SOLUTION: Following the book's
suggestion,
it is enough to rule out the possibility of infinitely many solutions,
for
then there remain only the possibility of one solution or no solution.
We
know that the case of infinitely many solutions only occurs when there
are
free varibles, and hence, only if the there are non-pivot columns in A.
But the given assumption is that all the columns of A are
pivot columns.
So, with no non-pivot columns in A, there are no free
variables,
and can not be an infinite number of solutions. This shows that
any system
of equations with coefficient matrix A can have at most one
solution.
Additional Problems from Assignment Sheet
- Try to complete the following statements of theorems and/or
definitions without looking them up in the book:
- A set of two vectors is linearly dependent if and
only if one is a multiple of the other.
- If a set of vectors in Rn contains the zero
vector then it is linearly dependent.
- For a set of vectors, if the number of vectors in the set is
more than the number of entries in each vector, then the set is linearly dependent.
- The columns of a matrix A are linearly independent if
and only if the matrix equation Ax = 0 has
only the trivial solution (x = 0).
- If S = { v1 , ..., vp
} is a set of two or more vectors, then S is a linearly
dependent set if and only if at least one
element of S
is a linear combination of the other elements.
- (*) Prove: If {v1,v2, ..., vn
} is a dependent set of vectors, then so is {v1,v2,
..., vn,vn+1
} for any vector vn+1.
Solution: We
are given that {v1,v2, ..., vn
} is a dependent set of vectors. That means there are
coefficients c1, c2, ... cn , such
that c1v1 + c2v2+ ... + cnvn = 0, and not
all of these coefficients equal 0. Now let vn+1 be any
vector,
and define one more coefficient, cn+1 .
Furthermore,
define this new coefficient to be 0. Then the following two
statements are
true:
(a) c1v1 + c2v2+ ... + cnvn+ cn+1vn+1 = 0 , and
(b)
not all of the coefficients
in (a) equal 0.
This shows that {v1,v2,
..., vn, vn+1 } is a dependent set of vectors , as desired.
- (*) Prove: If {v1,v2, ..., vn
} is an independent set of vectors, then so is any non-empty subset. To
simplify the argument, you may assume that any non-empty subset can be
expressed
as {v1,v2, ..., vk
} for some k with 1 < k
< n. Why is that valid?
Solution: Given
any nonempty subset of the given set of vectors, it would be possible
to
relabel the original vectors so the subset consists of vectors 1
through
k for some k between 1 and n inclusive. The dependence or
independence
of a set of vectors does not depend on the labels we use to denote
these
vectors, so relabeling vectors in this way does not invalidate the
proof.
So, we now want to show that {v1,v2,
..., vk } is an independent set of vectors.
According
to the definition of linear independence, we can do this by
establishing
that there is only a trivial solution to the homogeneous equation c1v1 + c2v2+ ... + ckvk = 0.
Now
we argue by contradiction. Suppose that there is a nontrivial
solution.
That is, suppose there are
coefficients c1, c2, ... ck , such
that c1v1 + c2v2+ ... + ckvk = 0, and not
all of these coefficients equal 0. Then we can define the
additional
coefficients ck+1, ck+2, ... cn ,
and
assign these each to equal 0. Then
the following
two statements are true:
(a) c1v1 + c2v2+ ... + cnvn = 0 , and
(b)
not all of the coefficients
in (a) equal 0.
This shows that {v1,v2,
..., vn} is a
dependent
set of vectors. But that is a contradiction of the starting
assumption for
the proof. So, assuming that a nontrivial solution exists to c1v1 + c2v2+ ... + ckvk = 0
leads
to a contradiction. We conclude that this assumption must in fact
be false.
Therefore, NO nontrivial
solution exists to c1v1 + c2v2+ ... + ckvk = 0, and that
establishes that {v1,v2,
..., vk} is an independent set of vectors.
- (*) Make up a definition for linear independence of functions (as
opposed to vectors). According to your definition, are the functions f(x)
= x and g(x) = x2 linearly
independent? What about the functions cos2x, sin2x,
and 2-cos2x?
Solution: define
the set of functions {f1,f2,
..., fk} to be dependent if there is a set of
coefficients c1, c2, ... ck ,
not all zero, such that the equation c1f1(x) + c2f2(x)+ ... + ckfk(x) = 0 is true for all x. If a set of
functions is
NOT dependent, then we say it is independent.
Using this definition, {x, x2} is an
independent
set of functions. To show that, for any particular constants c1, c2
consider the
equation c1x + c2x2 = 0. We can factor this equation to obtain x(
c1 + c2x) = 0. Now consider the possibilities.
First, if c1 and
c2 both = 0, then the equation is true for every x.
If c2 = 0 but not c1, then the
only
solution is x = 0. If c1 = 0 but not c2, then the
only
solution is again x = 0.
Finally, if
neither c1 nor c2 is equal to 0, then there are two solutions: x = 0 and x
=
-c1 / c2 . Reviewing these possibilities, we observe that the
equation
holds for ALL x only if both coefficients are 0. So, {x, x2} is not a dependent
set,
and so must be an independent set of functions
On the other hand, the set {cos2x, sin2x,
2-cos2x}
is
a dependent set of functions. To justify this, we use the
trigonometric
identity cos2x + sin2x = 1, which is true for all x. Therefore
1cos2x + 2sin2x -1(2-cos2x) = 1cos2x
+ 2sin2x -2 + cos2x
= 2cos2x + 2sin2x- 2 = 0
holds for all x. Since the coefficients in this equation
are 1, 2,
and -1, and these are not all 0, this shows that the set {cos2x, sin2x,
2-cos2x}
is
a dependent set of functions.